Transesophageal Echocardiography
L. Leonardo Rodriguez
1. Which of the following left atrial appendage (LAA) emptying velocities are associated with stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation?
A. >50 cm/s.
B. <2 m/s.
C. 20 mm/s.
D. <20 cm/s.
E. None of the above.
View Answer
1. Answer: D. In patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, low left atrial emptying velocities (<20 cm/s) have been associated with severe spontaneous echocardiographic contrast, appendage thrombus, and subsequent cardioembolic events. Data also suggest that patients with severe echo contrast have a poor prognosis with increased mortality.
2. The sensitivity of transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) for acute ascending aortic dissection is:
A. 60%-70%.
B. >95%.
C. 75%-80%.
D. Better compared to descending thoracic dissections.
View Answer
2. Answer: B. TEE is a sensitive and highly specific technique for the diagnosis of aortic dissection. Intimal flaps are easily visualized when present in the proximal ascending aorta, distal arch, and descending thoracic aorta. Studies comparing TEE with computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) have shown that its sensitivity is >95%.
3. In the midesophageal TEE short axis of the aortic valve:
A. The non-coronary cusp is the most anterior cusp.
B. The left coronary cusp is the most anterior cusp.
C. The right coronary is adjacent to the interatrial septum.
D. The non-coronary cusp is adjacent to the interatrial septum.
View Answer
3. Answer: D. The non-coronary cusp is adjacent to the interatrial septum. The midesophageal TEE shortaxis view allows detailed visualization of the aortic valve anatomy. In normal trileaflet valves, the right coronary cusp is the most anterior cusp (farthest from the transducer).
4. During TEE guidance of a transseptal puncture, the best view to direct the needle anteriorly or posteriorly is:
A. Midesophageal 4-chamber view.
B. Bicaval view.
C. Short-axis view at the level of the aortic valve.
D. Midesophageal 5-chamber view.
View Answer
4. Answer: C. Guidance of percutaneous interventions in structural heart disease is an expanding indication for TEE. Some of these procedures require a transseptal puncture (e.g., mitral valve procedures and left atrial appendage closure). Correct placement of the needle for transseptal puncture is paramount for the safety of the procedure. To avoid aortic puncture, the needle has to be manipulated posteriorly to the aorta. The best view for guidance in the anterior-posterior direction is the short-axis view at the level of the aortic root.
5. Which of the following statements regarding probe insertion techniques is correct?
A. Locking control wheels is recommended at the time of probe insertion.
B. The probe should be inspected for damage before insertion and a live sector image should be on the screen.
C. The probe should be inserted with patient flat on his or her back.
D. Extension of the neck facilitates esophageal intubation.
View Answer
5. Answer: B. Some of the most feared complications of TEE occur during probe insertion. Knobs should never be locked to diminish the possibility of pharyngeal or esophageal injury. The probe should be inserted with the patient in the lateral decubitus position in moderately sedated patients and with anterior flexion of the neck. The probe should always be inspected before insertion, with an image on the screen confirming normal probe function. The new guidelines for Performing a Comprehensive Transesophageal Echocardiographic Examination have detailed descriptions of the appropriate techniques for probe insertion.
6. Which of the following statements regarding the tricuspid valve is correct?
A. The septal leaflet has the longest radial length.
B. The names of the leaflets are septal, anterior, and inferior.
C. The anterior leaflet has the longest radial length.
D. The tricuspid valve is usually visualized only in the midesophageal 4-chamber view.
View Answer
6. Answer: C. Although transthoracic echocardiography usually provides diagnostic imaging of the pathology of the tricuspid valve, TEE can offer additional information regarding anatomy and function. This is particularly relevant in patients with suspected endocarditis. It is then necessary to know the anatomy of the valve and the different TEE views to visualize its different components. The tricuspid leaflets are the anterior (with the longest radial length), septal (the shortest radial length), and the posterior. The tricuspid valve can be visualized in multiple views beginning with the midesophageal 4-chamber view. Because regurgitant jets are usually not coaxial with the ultrasound beam in this view, it is necessary to explore other angles. The 70-100-degree views are often the best for continuous wave Doppler interrogation. In patients with a normal-sized aorta, the 150-degree view is helpful for the visualization of tricuspid valve regurgitant jet size.
7. Aortic valvular gradients are best obtained using TEE in which view?
A. Midesophageal view with anterior flexion.
B. Midesophageal view with retroflexion.
C. Deep transgastric view at 30 degrees with retroflexion.
D. Deep transgastric view at 0 degrees with anteflexion.
View Answer
7. Answer: D. The evaluation of patients with aortic stenosis using TEE includes visualization of the aortic valve anatomy and planimetry of the aortic valve area. When possible, transvalvular gradients are obtained. However, obtaining accurate transaortic gradients can be technically challenging. It requires a deep transgastric view at 0 degrees with anteflexion of the probe tip. The objective is alignment of the aortic valve and proximal ascending aorta as parallel as possible with the continuous wave Doppler cursor. Alternatively, the transducer position can be set at 90-100 degrees and the probe slowly pulled back keeping the anteflexion and the tip adjusted with the lateral knob. These maneuvers are important not only in patients with valvular aortic stenosis but also in patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy.
8. The following are appropriate indications for TEE except:
A. Guidance during percutaneous noncoronary interventions.
B. Routine assessment of pulmonary veins in patients after pulmonary vein isolation.
C. Suspected acute aortic pathology.
D. When transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is nondiagnostic due to poor-quality images.
View Answer
8. Answer: B. In 2011, the new criteria for appropriateness for echocardiography were published (J Am Soc Echocardiogr. 2011;24:229-267). Of the options offered, answer (B) was considered an inappropriate indication for TEE. After pulmonary vein isolation, routine use of TEE in asymptomatic patients is not indicated. TEE is helpful in the guidance of noncoronary interventions and remains an important tool in the diagnosis of suspected aortic dissection. It is also indicated in patients with suboptimal TTE views when visualization of cardiac structures is essential for resolving diagnostic concerns.
9. Which of the following statements is correct regarding TEE findings in patients with atrial fibrillation?
A. Cardioversion can be safely performed off anticoagulation if TEE is negative for thrombus.
B. Spontaneous echo contrast is common and does not offer independent prognostic value.
C. Spontaneous echo contrast is highly associated with previous stroke or peripheral embolism in patients with atrial fibrillation.
D. Surgical ligation excludes flow into the left atrial appendage in >90% of the cases.
View Answer
9. Answer: C. In patients with atrial fibrillation, the presence of severe spontaneous contrast or smoke is a marker of increased risk of thromboembolic events. Electrical cardioversion causes left atrial appendage stunning with increased severity of echocontrast immediately after the procedure. There have been published series of cases of embolic stroke after cardioversion in patients with a negative TEE for left atrial thrombus who are not anticoagulated. For that reason, patients should have therapeutic levels of anticoagulation before proceeding with cardioversion. A recent series of patients with surgical LAA ligation showed a high incidence of residual flow between the left atrium (LA) and LAA.
10. The differential diagnosis in patients with suspected aortic valve endocarditis includes:
A. Lambl’s excrescences, Arantius nodules, fibroelastoma, and Thebesian nodules.
B. Chiari strands, unicuspid raphe, fibroelastomas, and fibromas.
C. Lambl’s excrescences, Arantius nodules, and fibroelastomas.
D. Ruptured chordae tendineae, Arantius nodules, and eustachian valve.
View Answer
10. Answer: C. TEE is highly sensitive for vegetations; however, other valvular structures should be considered in the differential diagnosis. For the aortic valve, these structures include Lambl’s excrescences, thickened Arantius nodules, and fibroelastomas. Lambl’s excrescences are filamentous structures attached to the ventricular side of the valve. Arantius nodules are present at the center of the free margin of each of the three cusps of the aortic valve. Fibroelastomas are benign tumors often attached to the aortic side of the valve.
11. Which is a true statement regarding complications of TEE?
A. The mortality of TEE is 0.1%-0.2%.
B. Esophageal perforation occurs in 0.4%-0.9%.
C. Major bleeding in <0.01%.
D. Heart failure in 0.5%.
View Answer
11. Answer: C. TEE is a safe technique in the proper setting and in experienced hands. The overall incidence of complications is very low (0.18%-2.8%). The highest complication rates (>10%) are hoarseness and lip injury. Mortality is <0.02%.
12. The distal ascending aorta is difficult to be visualized by TEE for what reason?
A. The esophagus is to the right of the distal ascending aorta.
B. There is interference from the trachea.
C. The esophagus is too close to the ascending aorta.
D. None of the above.
View Answer
12. Answer: B. TEE is an excellent technique to visualize the ascending aorta, distal arch, and the descending thoracic aorta. However, the distal ascending aorta and the proximal arch constitute a blind spot for TEE visualization. The blind spot is caused by the interposition of air, located in the trachea and main bronchi, between the transducer and the aorta.
13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding methemoglobinemia occurring after benzocaine topical anesthetic for TEE?
A. Oxygen saturation is low, arterial Po2 is normal, and there is no cyanosis.
B. There is no cyanosis, low-oxygen saturation, and low arterial Po2.
C. Higher levels (methemoglobin level >70%) may result in dysrhythmias, circulatory failure, neurologic depression, and death.
D. The treatment of choice is 100% oxygen.
View Answer
13. Answer: C. Methemoglobinemia related to benzocaine topical anesthetic given during TEE is a rare reaction occurring in 0.07%-0.12% of patients. Methemoglobin levels are elevated due to conversion of iron from a reduced to oxidized form of hemoglobin which results in poor oxygen carrying capacity. This results in cyanosis, low oxygen saturation levels, and normal arterial Po2 levels. Patients with methemoglobin levels >70% may develop circulatory collapse, neurologic depression, and death. The treatment of choice is intravenous methylene blue 1% solution (10 mg/mL) 1-2 mg/kg administered intravenously slowly for more than 5 minutes, followed by intravenous flush with normal saline.
14. When encountering resistance to insertion of the TEE probe in the midesophagus, which of the following maneuvers is recommended?
A. Withdraw the probe to the mouth and reinsert.
B. Withdraw the probe slightly, anteflex, and try again to advance the probe forward.
C. Withdraw the probe slightly, retroflex, and try again to advance the probe forward.
D. Withdraw the probe and recommend an endoscopy.
View Answer
14. Answer: C. Sometimes the TEE probe will become coiled in the esophagus with the tip pointed toward the mouth. Often, this can be remedied by withdrawing the probe to a slight extent, retroflexing the probe, and then attempting to advance the probe forward. However, it is always true that if simple maneuvers such as this do not work, then the TEE should not be continued and an endoscopy should be performed to rule out stricture or obstructing lesions.
15. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for TEE?
A. History of radiation to the neck and mediastinum.
B. History of gastrointestinal surgery.
C. Barrett esophagus.
D. Esophageal diverticulum.
View Answer
15. Answer: D. Absolute contraindications to TEE include esophageal or pharyngeal obstruction, esophageal diverticulum, active gastrointestinal bleeding from an unknown source, and perforated viscus. Relative contraindications include esophageal varices, history of radiation to the neck, Barrett esophagus, and coagulopathy.
16. What is the main pathologic finding in this midesophageal view (Fig. 6-1)?
A. Bileaflet mitral valve prolapse.
B. Large vegetation.
C. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve.
View Answer
16. Answer: D. Degenerative mitral valve disease is the most common cause of severe mitral regurgitation requiring surgery. Echocardiography is the main diagnostic modality to assess mitral valve disease. Although TTE often offers enough diagnostic information, TEE is the gold standard for anatomical definition. Posterior mitral prolapse and/or flail are more common than anterior mitral pathology. A flail leaflet is diagnosed when ruptured chordae are visualized and the tip of the leaflet points superiorly into the left atrium in systole. In cases of posterior leaflet flail, the regurgitant jet is anteriorly directed.
17. The pulmonary vein flow from the prior patient is consistent with (Fig. 6-2):
A. Large atrial reversal secondary to increased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.
B. Mild mitral regurgitation.
C. Severe mitral regurgitation.
View Answer
17. Answer: C. Pulmonary vein flow assessment is part of a comprehensive evaluation in patients with mitral regurgitation. Figure 6-2 shows holosystolic flow reversal consistent with severe mitral regurgitation. In patients with mild mitral regurgitation, usually the pulmonary vein flow is normal with predominant or mildly blunted systolic flow. A large atrial reversal is seen in patients with increased end-diastolic pressure. In patients with mitral stenosis, the typical finding is a slow deceleration slope in the diastolic wave of the pulmonary vein flow.
18. This short-axis of the aortic valve shows (Fig. 6-3):
A. Bicuspid aortic valve.
B. Lambl’s excrescence.
C. Fibroelastoma of the left coronary cusp.
View Answer
18. Answer: D. Papillary fibroelastomas are benign tumors that can be seen on the aortic valve. These tumors are described as small, well-delineated, pedunculated masses with a predilection for valvular endocardium. These tumors can be highly mobile and carry an embolic risk. The diagnoses are usually incidental or during investigation for an embolic source. The echocardiographic characteristics of fibroelastomas are:
The tumor is round or oval, irregular in appearance, with well-demarcated borders and a homogeneous texture.
Most are relatively small <20 mm.
Nearly half have small stalks, and those with stalks are mobile.
They may be single or multiple and are often associated with valvular disease.
They more commonly appear on the aortic valve, followed by the mitral valve.
19. What is the finding in this patient with back pain (Fig. 6-4)?
A. Ascending aorta with intramural hematoma.
B. Descending aorta with intramural hematoma.
C. Descending aorta dissection with pericardial effusion.
View Answer
19. Answer: D. This is an example of an aortic dissection flap of the descending thoracic aorta with associated pleural effusion. Note the characteristic intimal flap that separates the true from the false lumen. The presence of a pleural effusion may represent a contained rupture but more often this represents an inflammatory pleural reaction. In patients with associated ascending aortic dissection with involvement of the aortic valve, pleural effusion may also indicate congestive heart failure.
20. What is the main finding in this biplane view of the left atrial appendage (LAA) in Figure 6-5?
A. Spontaneous echo contrast.
B. Spontaneous echo contrast with prominent pectinate muscles.
C. Normal left atrial appendage.
View Answer
20. Answer: D. This example shows two LAA thrombi. They are usually related to stagnant flow that can be seen in patients with atrial fibrillation or mitral valve disease, in particular stenotic lesions. These thrombi are more often seen at the tip of the appendage. Although usually they are single, they can be multilobulated. Differential diagnoses include prominent pectinate muscles and severe spontaneous echo contrast. Pectinate muscles are usually easy to identify using a multiplane TEE probe and can be seen as fingerlike structures at around 100-110-degree rotation. Severe spontaneous echo contrast (sludge) can be challenging to differentiate from a true clot. In some cases, the use of commercially available echo contrast agents may be helpful.
21. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the findings seen in Figure 6-6?
A. It is the most common benign tumor of the heart.
B. It is usually attached to the interatrial septum.
C. Surgery is the treatment of choice.
View Answer
21. Answer: D. Myxomas are the most common benign tumors of the heart. They can be found in any of the heart cavities but most often in the left atrium. Typically, these tumors are attached by a stalk to the interatrial septum. Surgery is usually indicated due to the potential for embolism or obstruction of the mitral valve orifice. In most cases, these are single tumors; although in their familial form, they can be multiple and recurrent. Carney syndrome is an autosomal dominantly transmitted multisystem tumorous disorder characterized by myxomas (heart, skin, and breast), spotty skin pigmentation (lentigines and blue nevi), endocrine tumors (adrenal, testicular, thyroid, and pituitary), and peripheral nerve tumors (schwannomas). In Carney syndrome, the cardiac myxomas are also multiple and contribute to the mortality of this disease.
22. Which of the following structures is visualized in Figure 6-7?
A. Right coronary artery.
B. Periaortic abscess.
C. Anomalous origin of the left main coronary artery.
View Answer
22. Answer: D. The proximal coronary arteries can be visualized using TEE. In patients with normal origin of the coronaries, the left main can be visualized as shown in the example. The right coronary artery can be more challenging due to its anterior origin and can be masked by aortic calcification.
23. The abnormality of the aortic valve seen in Figure 6-8 is consistent with:
A. Rheumatic aortic valve disease.
B. Normal bioprosthetic valve.
C. Bicuspid aortic valve.
View Answer
23. Answer: D. This is an example of a unicuspid aortic valve. This is a relatively rare entity accounting for less than 5% of the adult population with aortic stenosis requiring surgery. Unicuspid valves can be unicommissural (most common) or acommissural.
24. This color Doppler image of the pulmonary vein bifurcation (angle 110 degrees; Fig. 6-9) most likely represents:
A. The left pulmonary veins.
B. The right pulmonary veins.
C. The right upper and left upper pulmonary veins.
View Answer
24. Answer: A. Visualization of the pulmonary veins is important in a variety of situations: after pulmonary vein ablation, in patients with sinus venosus ASD, and in the assessment of mitral regurgitation. The easiest vein to visualize is the left upper pulmonary vein that runs next to the left atrial appendage. However, it is possible to visualize the bifurcation of the left and right pulmonary veins. The left pulmonary veins are typically seen from 110 to 140 degrees with counterclockwise rotation. In the example, the bifurcation can be easily seen with a transducer position at 110 degrees. Figure 6-18A corresponds to the left upper and lower pulmonary veins and Figure 6-18B corresponds to the right upper and lower pulmonary veins. The right pulmonary veins are usually visualized from 45- to 60-degree transducer position with clockwise rotation. (RLPV, right lower pulmonary vein; RUPV, right upper pulmonary vein.)