Noninvasive Cardiac Imaging



Noninvasive Cardiac Imaging


Benjamin W. Eidem

M. Yasir Qureshi

Talha Niaz



Questions



1. Which statement is correct regarding the Doppler examination?


A. Pulsed-wave (PW) Doppler requires one crystal to transmit the sound wave and another crystal to receive the reflected sound wave


B. The maximum frequency shift that can be measured accurately by PW Doppler is termed pulse repetition frequency (PRF)


C. Nyquist limit = PRF/2


D. Nyquist limit can be extended by using higher frequency transducer


E. High PRF is a technique to increase Nyquist limit without range ambiguity

View Answer

1. (C) PW Doppler utilizes one crystal that both emits and receives the sound pulses. The maximal frequency shift that can be determined by PW Doppler is equal to one-half the PRF and is termed the Nyquist limit. This Nyquist limit can be extended by using lower frequency transducers. High PRF lacks range gating resulting in range ambiguity.



2. In which of the following scenarios is it most appropriate to use the simplified Bernoulli equation to estimate a change in pressure?


A. Severe pulmonary valve stenosis


B. Aortic coarctation with bicuspid aortic valve


C. Patent ductus arteriosus


D. Subaortic stenosis and aortic stenosis


E. Blalock-Taussig shunt

View Answer

2. (A) The simplified Bernoulli equation ignores the components of flow acceleration and viscous friction. Doppler velocities across a patent ductus arteriosus or Blalock-Taussig shunt will likely be underestimated due to viscous friction in these tortuous connections and difficulties with proper ultrasound beam alignment. Multiple obstructions in series, such as multiple sites of LVOT obstruction (subvalvar, valvar, coarctation), will need to account for flow acceleration proximal to the distal site(s) of obstruction. Isolated valvar stenoses would be an appropriate use of the simplified Bernoulli equation.



3. The Doppler pattern in Figure 5.1 is consistent with which of the following?






FIGURE 5.1


A. Normal pattern


B. Grade 1 diastolic dysfunction (impaired relaxation)


C. Grade 2 diastolic dysfunction (pseudonormalization)


D. Grade 3 diastolic dysfunction (restrictive physiology)


E. Grade 4 diastolic dysfunction (severe irreversible restrictive physiology)

View Answer

3. (B) These Doppler patterns are consistent with impaired relaxation. Mitral inflow Doppler demonstrates an E:A ratio <1, while mitral annular tissue Doppler imaging also demonstrates a decreased early annular velocity and abnormal E′/A′ ratio <1. Pulmonary venous Doppler shows a systolic dominance and a prominent atrial reversal wave, consistent with grade 1 diastolic dysfunction (Figure 5.25).



4. A patient has coarctation of the aorta. PW Doppler reveals a peak velocity of 2.0 m/s proximal to the coarctation. A continuous wave (CW) Doppler across the coarctation reveals a peak Doppler velocity of 4.0 m/s. What is the pressure gradient across the coarctation?


A. 8 mm Hg


B. 9 mm Hg


C. 36 mm Hg


D. 48 mm Hg


E. 64 mm Hg

View Answer

4. (D) The pressure gradient can be predicted by using the “expanded” Bernoulli equation, P1P2 = 4(V22V12), utilizing the Doppler velocities proximal and distal to the coarctation: 4 ([4.0]2 – [2.0]2) = 48 mm Hg.






FIGURE 5.25




5. The Doppler tracing of the descending aorta in Figure 5.2 was obtained in a patient with suspected aortic regurgitation. What is the degree of regurgitation?






FIGURE 5.2


A. Unable to determine degree of regurgitation


B. Trivial


C. Mild


D. Moderate


E. Severe

View Answer

5. (E) The presence of holodiastolic flow reversal in the abdominal aorta is consistent with severe aortic regurgitation.



6. Which of the following statements is correct concerning contrast echocardiography?


A. Contrast agents utilize microbubbles that are 50 to 100 microns in size


B. In the normal heart, contrast agents should opacify the right heart but not the left heart


C. Contrast agents can pass through the pulmonary circulation to opacify the left atrium and left ventricle


D. Acoustic impedance of contrast agents is higher than that of the blood pool


E. Contrast effect persists for 10 to 15 seconds in the normal heart

View Answer

6. (C) Contrast agents are designed to pass through the pulmonary capillary bed to opacify the left heart structures. The typical size of these microspheres is 1 to 10 microns. The acoustic impedance of contrast agents is much lower than that of the blood pool. The contrast effect persists for 3 to 5 minutes with most contrast agents.



7. Which of the following is correct concerning echocardiographic use of agitated saline injections?


A. Microbubbles are 1 to 10 microns in size and easily traverse the pulmonary bed to the left heart


B. In the presence of an intrapulmonary shunt, the majority of these bubbles appear in the left atrium within one to two cardiac cycles.


C. A negative bubble study (i.e., no bubbles imaged within the left heart) with agitated saline rules out a right-to-left shunt


D. Indications for agitated saline studies include unexplained cyanosis and stroke


E. Bubbles cannot be present in the left heart in the normal circulation without the presence of a left-to-right shunt

View Answer

7. (D) Microbubbles created with agitated saline range in size from 10 to 100 microns and do not pass through the pulmonary capillary bed. These microbubbles opacify the right atrium and right ventricle but not left heart structures in the absence of an intracardiac or intrapulmonary shunt (video 5.4a). They can be helpful to identify an intracardiac right-to-left shunt that may be an etiology in stroke or unexplained cyanosis (video 5.4b). In the presence of an intrapulmonary shunt, the microbubbles typically appear in the left heart in three to five cardiac cycles compared to one to two cardiac cycles for an intracardiac shunt (video 5.4c). A negative bubble study does not definitively exclude the presence of an intermittent right-to-left shunt.



8. Which of the following is most helpful to diagnose the severity of aortic insufficiency?


A. Degree of left ventricular (LV) dilatation


B. Length of the color Doppler regurgitant jet into the LV


C. Amount of diastolic Doppler flow reversal in the ascending aorta


D. Vena contracta width of the regurgitant jet


E. Comparison of the forward flow Doppler time velocity integral (TVI) to reverse flow TVI in the abdominal aorta

View Answer

8. (D) The width of the regurgitant jet (vena contracta) and the ratio of the vena contracta dimension to the aortic annulus dimension are quantitative measures to grade aortic regurgitation. The degree of LV dilatation is a semiquantitative measure and is most consistent with the duration of aortic regurgitation in addition to its severity. The length of the regurgitant jet into the left ventricle is influenced by many factors in addition to regurgitant severity including LV end-diastolic pressure and eccentricity of the jet. The degree of Doppler flow reversal in the abdominal aorta is an excellent predictor of regurgitation degree as is the forward to reverse flow TVI ratio in the distal transverse aortic arch.



9. Which of the following formulas is correct for the myocardial performance index (MPI) (i.e., Tei index)?


A. [ICT + IRT]/ET


B. PEP/ET


C. E/Ea


D. Pulmonary venous atrial reversal duration – mitral inflow atrial duration


E. [LVEDD – LVESD]/LVET

View Answer

9. (A) The MPI is the ratio of the total time spent in isovolumic activity (isovolumic contraction and isovolumic relaxation times) divided by the time spent in ventricular ejection (Figure 5.26).



10. Which echocardiographic scan plane is most optimal to define a secundum atrial septal defect?


A. Suprasternal long-axis view


B. Parasternal long-axis view


C. Parasternal short-axis view


D. Subcostal four-chamber view


E. Apical four-chamber view

View Answer

10. (D) The subcostal imaging window is optimal to demonstrate the atrial septum and any associated atrial septal defects that may be present. To visualize the atrial septum without potential drop-out, the imaging plane of sound should be perpendicular to the cardiac structure of interest. With respect to the atrial septum, the imaging plane that is optimally perpendicular is the subcostal four-chamber and sagittal views. Atrial septal defects can be demonstrated in other imaging windows including the parasternal short-axis, apical four-chamber, and high right parasternal views but care must be taken not to diagnose an atrial septal defect when the plane of sound is more parallel to the atrial septum creating the potential for false drop-out in the 2D image. The addition of color Doppler and spectral Doppler interrogation in these views will also facilitate the diagnosis of an atrial septal defect (Figure 5.27).






FIGURE 5.26



11. Which of the following is the most common associated cardiac defect found with a sinus venosus atrial septal defect?


A. Anomalous right pulmonary venous connection


B. Inlet ventricular septal defect


C. Bicuspid aortic valve


D. Persistent left superior vena cava


E. Coarctation of the aorta

View Answer

11. (A) Sinus venosus atrial septal defects are most commonly associated with anomalous connection of the right pulmonary veins. Either a single right upper pulmonary vein or the right upper and middle pulmonary veins insert anomalously to the superior vena cava or the SVC-right atrial junction. Sinus venosus defects are found most commonly in the superior portion of the atrial septum creating a “biatrial” insertion of the superior vena cava. These defects can also be located inferiorly near the entrance of the inferior vena cava into the right atrium.



12. Which of the following findings on echocardiography is consistent with constriction?


A. E/A ratio of mitral Doppler inflow <1.0


B. Decreased Ea velocity on tissue Doppler of the lateral mitral annulus


C. Increased respiratory variation in mitral inflow E-wave velocity >30%


D. Increased hepatic venous atrial systolic Doppler flow reversals during inspiration


E. Increased E-wave deceleration time on mitral inflow Doppler

View Answer

12. (C) Constrictive pericarditis is characterized by increased respiratory variation in mitral inflow Doppler velocities by >25%. Transmitral Doppler often demonstrates an increased E:A ratio and a shortened E-wave deceleration time. Lateral mitral tissue Doppler velocities are usually normal. Hepatic venous Doppler will demonstrate increased atrial systolic flow reversals during expiration.




13. Which of the following parameters is consistent with restrictive LV physiology?


A. Mitral inflow E/A Doppler ratio <1


B. Increased lateral mitral annular Ea velocity


C. Mitral inflow deceleration time <80 ms


D. Increased systolic/diastolic ratio of pulmonary venous Doppler


E. Lateral mitral annular E/Ea ratio <10

View Answer

13. (C) Echocardiographic hallmarks of restrictive LV physiology in adults include an increased mitral inflow Doppler E:A ratio >2.0, shortened mitral E-wave deceleration time <160 ms, decreased lateral mitral Ea velocity, and an increased E/E′ ratio >15. Pulmonary venous Doppler demonstrates decreased systolic to diastolic pulmonary venous filling wave ratio with significantly increased atrial reversal wave velocity and duration.






FIGURE 5.27 LA, left atrium; RA, right atrium.



14. A newborn male born at 38-week gestation was found to be cyanotic at birth. He was started on prostaglandin infusion until an echocardiogram could be performed. videos 5.1a,b show subcostal views of the left and right ventricular outflow tracts. His oxygen saturation at the time of echocardiogram was 71% and initial arterial blood gas was: pH 7.3, pCO2 45 mm Hg, pO2 28 mm Hg, and base of -1. Infant is currently stable with adequate hemodynamics and supported by nasal cannula for mild respiratory distress. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of the patient?


A. Discontinue PGE and plan for neonatal repair


B. Patient should undergo emergent surgical intervention


C. Ductal stenting and complete repair at 6 months of age


D. Patient should undergo balloon atrial septostomy


E. Continue PGE followed by complete surgical repair in 1 week

View Answer

14. (D) The newborn male has D-transposition of the great arteries (D-TGA) as evident from the videos 5.1a,b demonstrating pulmonary artery arising from the left ventricle and aorta arising from the right ventricle. Neonates with D-TGA can have a variable degree of desaturation depending primarily on the atrial and also on ventricular level shunts. The initial blood gas in the patient revealed a low arterial PaO2 of 29 mm Hg in addition to low oxygen saturations, which suggest restricted atrial level shunt. All of these will be prominent indications for balloon atrial septostomy as the next best step in the management of the current patient.



15. Which of the following is the most common anatomic finding in a complete AVSD?


A. Cleft in posterior leaflet of mitral component of AV valve


B. Medial rotation of left ventricular papillary muscles


C. Ratio of left ventricular inlet to outlet distance >1.0


D. Left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) is “sprung” anteriorly


E. Left and right atrioventricular valve attachments are present at different levels

View Answer

15. (D) Anatomic hallmarks of AVSD include a cleft in the anterior leaflet of the left atrioventricular valve, lateral rotation of the left ventricular papillary muscles, and attachments of the left and right atrioventricular valves at the same level at the cardiac crux. In addition, due to the absence of the atrioventricular septum in these defects, the left ventricular inflow is shortened and the left ventricular outflow is elongated (“goose-neck deformity”) creating a ratio of LV inlet to LV outlet ratio <1. Owing to the presence of a common atrioventricular valve, the aortic valve is no longer “wedged” between the tricuspid and the mitral valves and is pushed anteriorly (“sprung”).



16. Which of the following statements is true regarding M-mode?


A. Has a low PRF


B. Has excellent temporal resolution


C. X-axis represents distance from transducer


D. Y-axis represents time


E. Utilizes two imaging crystals to transmit and receive impulses

View Answer

16. (B) M-mode has excellent temporal resolution and a high fixed PRF. The x-axis represents time while the y-axis represents distance from the transducer. M-mode utilizes a single imaging crystal.



17. Which of the following statements regarding spatial resolution in echocardiography is correct?


A. Spatial resolution is defined as the smallest distance between two points distinguishable as separate points


B. Axial resolution is the ability to differentiate points perpendicular to the ultrasound beam path


C. Lateral resolution is the ability to differentiate between points along the path of the ultrasound beam


D. Lateral resolution is better than axial resolution


E. Image resolution is best where the ultrasound beam is widest

View Answer

17. (A) Spatial resolution is defined as the smallest distance between two points that are distinguishable from one another. Axial resolution is the ability to differentiate points along the ultrasound beam and is equal to its wave-length. Lateral resolution is the ability to resolve points perpendicular to the ultrasound beam and is dependent on beam width, with the best resolution found where the beam is the narrowest. Axial resolution is better than lateral resolution.



18. Which of the following is the most likely source of error in calculation of Doppler flow velocity?


A. Angle of incidence of the ultrasound beam


B. Depth of the vascular structure


C. Frequency of the transducer


D. Presence and degree of imaging artifact


E. Variation in heart rate

View Answer

18. (A) Doppler velocity is calculated as follows: V = [c(fd)]/[2fo cos θ]. The speed of sound (c) and the transmitted ultrasound frequency (fo) are constant while the frequency shift (fd) can be measured very accurately. Therefore, the main source of error in velocity calculation is the angle of incidence (θ) between the ultrasound beam and the moving structure or blood. When the angle of incidence is <20 degrees, the Doppler velocity is not significantly underestimated (Figure 5.28).



19. Which of the following is true regarding CW Doppler?


A. Utilizes a single ultrasound crystal that continuously transmits and receives


B. No limit to maximal velocity measured


C. Excellent range resolution


D. Less dependent on angle of incidence compared to PW Doppler


E. Lower Nyquist limit compared to PW Doppler

View Answer

19. (B) CW Doppler utilizes two crystals, one that is continuously transmitting and one that is continuously receiving, making the sampling rate infinite so that there is no limit to the detection of the maximal frequency shift. A disadvantage is that there is no range gating resulting in lack of range resolution (the maximal Doppler velocity can be anywhere along the ultrasound beam path). Both CW and PW Dopplers are equally dependent on the angle of incidence for accurate velocity determination (Figure 5.29).



20. Which of the following statements regarding PW Doppler is correct?


A. Utilizes two ultrasound crystals that continuously transmit and receive


B. No limit to maximal velocity measured


C. Excellent range resolution


D. Lower PRF than color Doppler


E. PRF is fixed

View Answer

20. (C) PW Doppler utilizes one crystal that intermittently transmits and receives. The time between transmission and reception allows the determination of the depth of the signal providing excellent range resolution. However, the maximal detectable frequency shift is limited resulting in a lower Nyquist limit than CW Doppler. Spectral Doppler has a higher PRF than color Doppler. PRF varies with the depth of the sample volume with PW Doppler, with a higher PRF with more shallow sample volumes.



21. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the Nyquist limit?


A. Represents the highest frequency shift that can be unambiguously detected and displayed


B. Is equal to the PRF


C. Is higher with PW Doppler versus CW Doppler


D. Remains the same with all transducer frequencies


E. Is lower at more shallow depths of interrogation

View Answer

21. (A) The Nyquist limit is the maximal frequency shift detectable by PW Doppler and is equal to one-half of the PRF. The Nyquist limit is lower with PW Doppler and is increased with lower frequency transducers and at shallow depths of interrogation.






FIGURE 5.28 RA, right atrium; RV, right ventricle.




22. Which of the following is a true statement regarding color Doppler?


A. Color Doppler represents the mean velocity of blood flow


B. Intensity of color represents peak Doppler flow velocity


C. 2D image content is unchanged with color Doppler imaging


D. Nyquist limit is increased with color Doppler imaging


E. Utilizes a single ultrasound beam with multiple sampling sites along that beam

View Answer

22. (A) Color Doppler utilizes multiple sampling sites along multiple ultrasound beams to generate frequency shifts that are converted into a digital format and autocorrelated into a color scheme. Color Doppler is a mean velocity of blood flow with the intensity of color representing mean Doppler flow velocities. The Nyquist limit is lower with color Doppler compared to spectral Doppler. Color Doppler is superimposed on 2D images resulting in less resolution.






FIGURE 5.29



23. Which of the following is the optimal echocardiographic view to delineate a subpulmonary ventricular septal defect (VSD)?


A. Parasternal long-axis view


B. Apical four-chamber view


C. Suprasternal long-axis view


D. Parasternal short-axis view


E. Apical five-chamber view

View Answer

23. (D) Subpulmonary VSDs are located adjacent to the pulmonary valve and aortic valve. These VSDs have been termed subpulmonary, supracristal, or doubly committed defects. These defects can be best demonstrated in the parasternal short-axis scan plane but can also be demonstrated from the subcostal and apical windows with appropriate angulation into the right ventricular outflow tract.



24. A 4-month-old male with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is undergoing surgical repair. Which of the following is the most common coronary artery abnormality among patients with TOF?


A. Single coronary artery


B. Left circumflex artery from the right coronary artery


C. Anomalous left coronary artery from the pulmonary artery


D. Left anterior descending artery from the right coronary artery


E. Right coronary artery from the left main coronary artery

View Answer

24. (C) Coronary artery anomalies have been reported in approximately up to 10% of the patients with TOF. It is critical to delineate the coronary artery anatomy preoperatively as they can potentially affect the surgical management. The most common coronary artery anomaly is origin of left anterior descending (LAD) from the right coronary artery (RCA) or accessory LAD from the RCA. A single coronary artery (more often from the left coronary sinus) is the next most frequent variant and occurs in up to 1% of patients. Although a prominent conal branch can be commonly seen in many patients with significant right ventricular hypertrophy, it is not considered as anomalous anatomy.



25. Which of the following is the most characteristic physiologic effect of a large ventricular septal defect?


A. Right ventricular volume overload


B. Low pulmonary arterial pressure


C. Equal right ventricular and left ventricular systolic pressure


D. Increased systemic blood flow


E. Decreased pulmonary blood flow

View Answer

25. (C) Large ventricular septal defects result in equalization of right and left ventricular pressures as well as elevated pulmonary arterial pressure. Left-to-right shunting at ventricular level results in a substantial increase in pulmonary blood flow with left atrial and left ventricular volume overload. Overall systemic blood flow is not significantly increased in this setting.



26. Which of the following is the best morphologic marker of the right atrium?


A. Broad-based triangular appendage


B. Receives superior vena cava (SVC)


C. Chamber is connected to morphologic RV


D. Presence of the valve of the fossa ovalis


E. Connected to tricuspid valve

View Answer

26. (A) (Figure 5.30) The best morphologic hallmarks of the right atrium are the broad-based right atrial appendage and the connections of the inferior vena cava and coronary sinus. Superior vena caval connection(s) have significant anatomic variability. Atrioventricular relationships can also vary and are not hallmarks of right atrial morphology. The valve of the fossa ovalis is septum primum and is a left atrial structure. The atrioventricular valve is a hallmark of ventricular morphology, with the morphologic tricuspid valve being the anatomic hallmark of the right ventricle.






FIGURE 5.30 Echo correlates of atrial morphology.



27. The atrial septum is best imaged in which scan plane?


A. Suprasternal


B. Subcostal


C. Parasternal long axis


D. Parasternal short axis


E. Apical four chamber

View Answer

27. (B) The best imaging plane to define the entire atrial septum is the subcostal imaging plane because it is perpendicular to this anatomic structure. (videos 5.5a,b) False drop-out can occur in imaging planes that are more parallel to the atrial septum.



28. Which of the following is a typical echocardiographic feature of the morphologic right ventricle?


A. Ellipsoid shape


B. More apical insertion point of atrioventricular valve


C. Smooth superior septal surface


D. Finely trabeculated apical portion


E. Lack of atrioventricular valve septal attachments

View Answer

28. (B) The best anatomic hallmark of the morphologic right ventricle is the connection of the tricuspid valve with a more apical insertion at the cardiac crux compared to the morphologic mitral valve. The tricuspid valve is “septophilic” with attachments to the ventricular septum. The right ventricle is more crescent in shape with prominent trabeculations (Figure 5.31).



29. Which of the following is a typical echocardiographic feature of the morphologic left ventricle (LV)?


A. Heavily trabeculated inflow portion


B. Triangular shape


C. Trabeculated septal surface


D. Lack of atrioventricular valve septal chordal attachments


E. More apical insertion of atrioventricular valve

View Answer

29. (D) A higher insertion of the morphologic mitral valve at the cardiac crux and lack of atrioventricular valve chordal attachments to the ventricular septum (“septophobic”) are excellent anatomic hallmarks of the morphologic LV. The LV is elliptical in shape with fine trabeculations, mainly toward the cardiac apex (Figure 5.31).



30. A neonate with pulmonary valve stenosis has a peak Doppler velocity by CW Doppler of 4.0 m/s. Which of the following is the estimated maximum instantaneous Doppler gradient?


A. 64 mm Hg


B. 77 mm Hg


C. 72 mm Hg


D. 50 mm Hg


E. Cannot be calculated

View Answer

30. (A) Utilizing the modified Bernoulli equation to obtain the peak instantaneous gradient across the pulmonary valve, 4 × (velocity)2, then 4 × (4.0)2 = 64 mm Hg.



31. Which of the following is the most common anatomic type of subaortic stenosis?


A. Tunnel type


B. Discrete membrane


C. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy


D. Systolic anterior motion of mitral valve


E. Anomalous mitral chordal insertion within the LVOT

View Answer

31. (B) The most common type of subaortic stenosis is related to a discrete membrane proximal to the aortic valve within the LVOT (Fig. 5.32) (videos 5.6a,b). This membrane is most often circumferential and can be adherent to both the aortic valve and the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve. LVOT obstruction in the setting of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is often related to asymmetric septal hypertrophy in combination with systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve chordal and leaflet tissue. Anomalous mitral chordal insertions within the LVOT can be isolated or found in association with congenital heart disease and may result in obstruction but are not as common as discrete membranes.



32. The most common associated cardiac abnormality in the patient with coarctation of the aorta is:


A. Bicuspid aortic valve


B. Ventricular septal defect


C. Atrial septal defect


D. Pulmonary valve stenosis


E. Coronary artery anomaly

View Answer

32. (A) Bicuspid aortic valve is the most commonly associated cardiac finding in patients with simple coarctation, with some studies showing as high as an 80% occurrence in patients with coarctation. Atrial and ventricular septal defects are also common in patients with coarctation. Pulmonary valve stenosis and coronary arterial anomalies are much less frequent in this cohort.






FIGURE 5.31 AV connection, the internal crux, and ventricular morphology.




33. A newborn female born at 38-week gestation had mild-moderate respiratory distress at birth requiring continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). She has lower extremity cyanosis with saturations of 80% in the right lower extremity and 95% in the right upper extremity due to which an echocardiogram was obtained. Figure 5.3 shows the pulsed-wave spectral Doppler pattern obtained within the patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?






FIGURE 5.3


A. Transposition of the great arteries with coarctation of the aorta


B. Persistent pulmonary hypertension


C. Tausig-Bing anomaly


D. Tricuspid atresia with transposed great arteries


E. None of the above

View Answer

33. (B) Newborn baby is demonstrating persistent pulmonary hypertension evident by the bidirectional flow at the level of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) demonstrated by the spectral Doppler pattern in the PDA. There is >10% split between pre- and postductal oxygen saturation with lower postductal saturation due to the right-to-left shunting at the level of PDA. However, in patients with transposition of great arteries and coarctation of the aorta, a reverse differential cyanosis is seen with lower preductal and higher postductal oxygen saturation due to the shunting of oxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta.






FIGURE 5.32 Ao, aorta; LA, left atrium; LV, left ventricle; RV, right ventricle.



34. Which of the following is the most diagnostic echo finding in pericardial effusion with cardiac tamponade?


A. Diastolic right atrial wall collapse


B. 10% variation in mitral inflow Doppler velocities with respiration


C. Diastolic right ventricular wall collapse


D. Effusion >25 mm circumferentially


E. 15% variation in tricuspid inflow Doppler velocities with respiration

View Answer

34. (C) Cardiac tamponade occurs when increasing fluid in the pericardial space causes a rise in intrapericardial pressure (typically greater than intracardiac pressure) compromising systemic venous return to the right atrium. Diastolic right atrial and right ventricular wall collapse occurs when intrapericardial pressure exceeds intracardiac pressure, with collapse of the right ventricle more sensitive to identify tamponade physiology. Pulsed-wave Doppler is more sensitive to identify cardiac tamponade with respiratory changes in Doppler flow across the tricuspid valve (>30%) and mitral valve (>25%) being most characteristic due to ventricular interdependence. While the overall size of the pericardial effusion is important, how quickly the fluid accumulates has more of an effect on intrapericardial pressure due to the relative compliance of the pericardium in the acute and chronic settings.



35. Which of the following methods of assessing LV systolic function is most independent of loading conditions?


A. Ejection fraction


B. Shortening fraction


C. Myocardial performance index


D. Rate-corrected velocity of circumferential fiber shortening


E. Stress-velocity index

View Answer

35. (E) The relationship between velocity of circumferential fiber shortening and end-systolic wall stress is independent of heart rate and preload and incorporates afterload making it a quantitative measure of ventricular contractility. Ejection fraction, shortening fraction, and the myocardial performance index are all significantly impacted by both preload and afterload.



36. A 2-month-old female with tricuspid atresia and normally related great arteries presents for follow-up. Her oxygen saturations on the current visit are 87%, blood pressure is 78/55 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 125 bpm. On physical examination she has a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur, liver is 3 inches below the subcostal margin and she has pedal edema with prominent lower extremity veins. Which of the following echocardiographic findings will likely explain the current clinical scenario?


A. Narrowing of the bulboventricular foramen


B. Coarctation of the aorta


C. Severe subpulmonary stenosis


D. Restricted atrial septal communication


E. Unrestricted pulmonary flow

View Answer

36. (D) Patients with tricuspid atresia can develop restriction at the level of atrial septum with varying clinical presentation ranging from asymptomatic to severe right-sided congestion or poor perfusion. Elevated right atrial pressure, hepatomegaly, peripheral edema, hypotension, and poor perfusion may be some of the presenting clinical symptoms. Patients with atrial septal aneurysm on their initial echocardiogram have been shown to be at increased risk for developing atrial septal restrictions. On the other hand, restriction of the ventricular septal defect or increase in the pulmonary/subpulmonary obstruction generally manifest with declining oxygen saturations as the initial presentation without evidence of right-sided congestion.



37. Holodiastolic Doppler flow reversal in the abdominal aorta can be attributed to which of the following?


A. Bidirectional cavopulmonary anastomosis


B. Large patent ductus arteriosus


C. Moderate aortic insufficiency


D. Sano shunt


E. High output state

View Answer

37. (B) The presence of holodiastolic Doppler flow reversal is consistent with a significant run-off from the descending aorta including a large patent ductus arteriosus, severe aortic valve regurgitation, systemic-to-pulmonary artery shunts, and large arteriovenous fistula.



38. Which of the following is the most common type of ventricular septal defect (VSD) that is associated with coarctation of the aorta?


A. Apical muscular


B. Anterior malalignment


C. Perimembranous


D. Inlet


E. Subpulmonary

View Answer

38. (C) The most common VSD associated with coarctation is a perimembranous defect. While less common, a posterior malalignment VSD often results in severe coarctation or interruption of the aortic arch. Muscular VSD as well as inlet VSD can also occur in the setting of coarctation, in particular with an unbalanced RV-dominant AVSD.



39. The Doppler finding often seen in patients with supravalvar aortic stenosis has been demonstrated to be a high-velocity poststenotic jet that hugs the aortic wall and preferentially transfers kinetic energy into the right innominate artery. Which of the following best describes this Doppler finding?


A. Coanda effect


B. Ohm’s law


C. Continuity equation


D. Poiseuille’s law


E. Bernoulli equation

View Answer

39. (A) The systolic jet in patients with supravalvar aortic stenosis propagates further than the jet originating with aortic valvar stenosis and has a tendency to be entrained along the aortic wall thereby transferring its kinetic energy into the right innominate artery. This physical principle, termed the Coanda effect, often is expressed clinically in these patients by marked discrepancy in upper arm blood pressures, with the right arm pressure higher than the left arm blood pressure.



40. In the simplified Bernoulli equation, which component of the complete equation is not ignored?


A. Flow acceleration


B. Convective acceleration


C. Viscous friction


D. Proximal Doppler velocity


E. Vessel length

View Answer

40. (B) In the simplified Bernoulli equation, convective acceleration is calculated while flow acceleration and viscous friction are ignored. To accurately utilize the simplified equation, the proximal Doppler velocity must be negligible (Figure 5.33).






FIGURE 5.33




41. Which of the following is true about an overriding atrioventricular valve?


A. Has chordal attachments into both ventricles


B. Must have chordal attachments to the ventricular septal crest


C. Empties into two ventricles


D. Cannot coexist with straddling


E. Is never associated with malalignment type of VSD

View Answer

41. (C) An overriding atrioventricular valve empties into two ventricles. It is committed to the ventricle to which >50% of its orifice is directed (Figure 5.34). This connection is always associated with a malalignment VSD. Valves that override can also straddle by having chordal attachments to the contralateral ventricle (Figure 5.34).






FIGURE 5.34 AV, atrioventricular; LV, left ventricle; RA, right atrium; RV, right ventricle.



42. Which of the following is true about a straddling cardiac valve?


A. Cannot coexist with overriding


B. Is always associated with malalignment type of ventricular septal defect (VSD)


C. Frequently involves the aortic valve


D. Is a common component of tetralogy of Fallot


E. Involves anomalous insertion of chordae tendineae

View Answer

42. (E) A straddling atrioventricular valve has anomalous chordal insertions or papillary muscles in the contralateral ventricle. Straddling and override often coexist. Straddling is associated with the presence of a VSD but does not require a malalignment type of defect. Semilunar valves do not have chordae or papillary muscles so they do not straddle. Straddling is not a common feature of tetralogy of Fallot.



43. Which statement is correct regarding polysplenia syndrome?


A. The situs of abdominal viscera is always ambiguous


B. The spleen are multiple and located on both left and right sides


C. Inferior vena cava (IVC) fails to join the heart directly with azygos continuation


D. Multiple gallbladders common


E. Biliary atresia never occurs

View Answer

43. (C) Interruption of the intrahepatic portion of the IVC with azygos vein continuation to the superior vena cava is a common feature of polysplenia syndrome (left atrial isomerism). The abdominal situs is variable and can be ambiguous, inversus, or solitus. The spleens are usually multiple and are characteristically located on the same side. A single gallbladder is most typical but biliary atresia can and does occur.



44. A 5-year-old female with a vascular ring underwent division of the ligamentum arteriosum due to progressive dysphagia. After surgery, she had slight improvement in her symptoms but continues to have persistent dysphagia. Figure 5.4 shows the CT angiogram of the patient at the level of the aortic arch. Which of the following structures could be a potential cause of residual compression on the esophagus?






FIGURE 5.4


A. Aberrant right subclavian artery


B. Right-sided aortic arch


C. Innominate artery


D. Left-sided aortic arch


E. Aberrant left subclavian artery

View Answer

44. (E) The patient has a complete vascular ring consisting of right-sided aortic arch and aberrant left subclavian artery which can lead to the compression of the esophagus or trachea. Division of the ligamentum arteriosum can release the compression on the surrounding structures in most cases, while some patients may require translocation of the aberrant subclavian artery traversing behind the esophagus or trachea.



45. Tricuspid atresia is an example of which of the following?


A. Common inlet


B. Double inlet


C. Single inlet


D. Absent inlet


E. Ambiguous AV connection

View Answer

45. (C) Tricuspid atresia is an example of a single-inlet atrioventricular valve connection (Figure 5.35).



46. A 13-year-old male presents to your clinic with a concern for an intracardiac mass diagnosed during evaluation for a murmur. He is completely asymptomatic from clinical standpoint. A transesophageal echocardiogram was obtained to assess the characteristics of the mass as shown in Figure 5.5. There is no significant mitral valve obstruction or regurgitation on the echocardiogram. Which of the following is true regarding the management of this cardiac mass?






FIGURE 5.5


A. Patient should be evaluated for tuberous sclerosis


B. No treatment is necessary as tumor will regress spontaneously


C. Lesion will resolve with chemotherapy


D. Lesion will resolve with radiotherapy


E. Surgical resection of mass is indicated

View Answer

46. (E) Atrial myxoma is the second most common form of cardiac mass in children, second to rhabdomyomas. The most common location of atrial myxomas is left atrium in 75% of the cases. They are commonly friable, pedunculated, red lobular tumors typically attached to the atrial septum. Myxomas can be associated with the triad of (a) valvular obstruction, (b) embolic events, and (c) systemic illness. Once a diagnosis of atrial myxoma has been made on imaging studies, prompt resection is indicated due to the risk of embolization or cardiovascular complications, including sudden death.




47. Which of the following statements is correct concerning venous return to the normal heart?


A. When the IVC is interrupted, venous return to the SVC is from the thebesian veins


B. When a persistent left SVC drains to a severely dilated coronary sinus, the brachiocephalic vein is typically small or absent


C. The connection of the right SVC to the right atrium confidently identifies the morphologic right atrium


D. It is more common for the right pulmonary veins than the left pulmonary veins to merge into a single vein that enters the left atrium


E. Interruption of the IVC is more common in asplenia versus polysplenia syndrome

View Answer

47. (B) When a persistent left superior vena cava drains to the coronary sinus, the size of the coronary sinus is inversely proportional to the size of the bridging innominate vein. When the coronary sinus is severely dilated, the innominate vein is most commonly very small or absent. When the inferior vena cava is interrupted, venous return is directed from the azygos vein to the superior vena cava. Interruption of the IVC is more common in polysplenia syndrome versus asplenia syndrome. Superior vena caval connections are variable and are not an anatomic hallmark of the morphologic right atrium. The left pulmonary veins more commonly merge than the right veins as they connect to the left atrium.






FIGURE 5.35



48. Which of the following is the most reliable feature that distinguishes the mitral valve from the tricuspid valve?


A. Shape of the orifice


B. Atrioventricular valve—semilunar valve continuity


C. Presence of septal chordal attachments


D. Level of attachment of atrioventricular valve at cardiac crux


E. Number of leaflets

View Answer

48. (D) While all these are features that distinguish the morphologic tricuspid valve from the mitral valve, the most reliable anatomic hallmark is the level of attachment of the atrioventricular valve at the cardiac crux. The atrioventricular valves are invariably associated with their appropriate morphologic ventricle (tricuspid valve with the right ventricle and mitral valve with the left ventricle) and are the best marker for atrioventricular connection and ventricular morphology.



49. A 12-year-old male with history of systemic lupus erythematous presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and exercise intolerance. On physical examination, he has no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His ECG showed diffuse ST segment elevation primarily in the inferolateral leads. An echocardiogram was obtained that demonstrated a small posterior pericardial effusion and normal biventricular systolic function. Pulsed-wave spectral Doppler tracings obtained at the mitral inflow level and hepatic vein are shown in Figures 5.6A,B, respectively. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on the Doppler tracings?






FIGURE 5.6 A: Mitral inflow pulsed-wave Doppler. B: Hepatic vein pulsed-wave Doppler.


A. Acute pericarditis without tamponade


B. Acute pericarditis with tamponade physiology


C. Constrictive pericarditis


D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy


E. Effusive pericarditis

View Answer

49. (C) Constrictive pericarditis is caused by thickened, inflamed, or calcific pericardium that limits the diastolic filling of the heart causing heart failure. Risk factors for constriction include previous cardiac surgery, recurrent pericarditis, episodes of pericardial effusion, and radiation therapy. Due to the fixed cardiac volume within the thickened pericardium, diastolic filling of right and left ventricles rely on each other. On echocardiography, it is characterized by increased respiratory variation in mitral inflow Doppler velocities by >25% and increased diastolic flow reversal with expiration in the hepatic vein. Other features of constriction may include an increased E:A ratio and a shortened E-wave deceleration time.




50. A 9-year-old patient presents with decreased exercise tolerance and cardiomegaly on chest x-ray. An echocardiogram was subsequently performed. What is the defect designated by the asterisk in Figure 5.7?






FIGURE 5.7 IVC, inferior vena cava; RA, right atrium; RPA, right pulmonary artery; SVC, superior vena cava.


A. Secundum atrial septal defect


B. Coronary sinus atrial septal defect


C. Sinus venosus atrial septal defect


D. Persistent left superior vena cava to unroofed coronary sinus


E. Primum atrial septal defect

View Answer

50. (C) Subcostal images demonstrate a sinus venosus atrial septal defect with partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection to the superior vena cava. The defect is located in the superior/posterior portion of the atrial septum adjacent to the superior vena cava. The right upper and middle pulmonary veins are often anomalous and most commonly connect to the superior vena cava.

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Nov 19, 2022 | Posted by in CARDIOLOGY | Comments Off on Noninvasive Cardiac Imaging

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